Quote:
Originally Posted by Run_For_Tha_Hills
...how can he imply that the subjectivity of an individual is synonymous with the responsibility and best interest of mankind as a whole? Is this simply because each individual participates in the overall idea of "mankind?" Help me out here...
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I'm currently reading Being and Nothingness but I'm only 50 some pages into it....And this may sound alot more like Aristotle's Categories...However, it seems to make sense...
Mankind itself cannot exist without individuals, it's simply composed of separate entities. Each subjective being is in itself different from every other being, however the entirety of those subjective individuals create the idea of mankind. So in a way, each individual striving in his or her different manner ultimately leads to the complete functioning of mankind...
Think of it like a car, every part is made of something different (mostly), has a different function and different purpose, yet ultimately, is operating to create one single entity, a car.
Every individual strives for his or her own meaning, yet all contribute to the idea of mankind...And unlike a car, mankind has no purpose other than what we give it (existentialism) so whatever meaning we apply and action we take to carry out that meaning is conducive to the best interest of mankind, since it simply lies in what we give it....There is no absolute purpose (something above ourselves) so it's relative to the individual.
I don't know if that's Sartre's view or not...but judging just that one sentence I feel thats what he's getting at...Unless it's some sort of phenomenology metaphor that I completely missed and took literally.