I was thinking on your omniscience-and-free-will argument when something occurred to me. If you are saying that if someone knows for certain that event A will happen then nothing other than A can happen, then aren't you also saying that if an event (or A) happens no other event was ever possible? You've previously told me you believe in free will, so this seems to be a problem. I don't doubt that I am merely confused on some point, but clarification would be appreciated.
Edit: Fixed an error. ("You am".... heh heh. Oops.)
[This message has been edited by Twisted_Ferret (edited 03-15-2006).]
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